Comments on: Math Optical Illusion

By: Rafael

Rafael — Wed, 10 Mar 2010 06:29:36 +0000

Im 20 now and could have answer this in middle school, its cute seeing grown folk think there smart with wrong answers

if im wrong, email me. RafCintron@Yahoo.com

1.a=b (ok, easy)
2.a^2=ab (multiply a to both sides, still equal)
3.a^2-b^2=ab-b^2 (subract b^2 from both side, fine)
heres where the problem starts
4.(a+b)(a-b)=b(a-b) IS A WHOLE DIFFERENT EQUATION

a=b so (a-b)=0 so anything time 0 equals zero
but subtract (a-b) from both sides… (a+b) does not equal b.
1+1 isnt 1, 2+2 isnt 2, and 5+5 will never be 5

hopefully my explaination was a lil easier than Rich’s up there :P lol

By: Rich

Rich — Mon, 08 Mar 2010 09:42:19 +0000

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mathematical_fallacy#All_numbers_equal_all_other_numbers

It all comes down to the division by 0 in the form of (a-b). Since (a-b)=(a-a)=(b-b) => (a-b)=0=0. No matter what, it’s dividing by 0, leading to an undefined number. Although, I do love seeing everybody else’s attempts to sound smart.

By: felixnovus

felixnovus — Sat, 06 Mar 2010 15:41:27 +0000

seeing from comments, people looks happy :) more easy illusions please

By: nathanale

nathanale — Mon, 22 Feb 2010 15:22:55 +0000

sneezes look like worms

By: ZEKO

ZEKO — Thu, 18 Feb 2010 22:50:03 +0000

Lol.very simple.its like this:

a=b (no problem)
a^2=ab (no problem)
a^2-b^2=ab-b^2 (no problem)
but! a^2-b^2=0
and ab-b^2=0

By: Kei

Kei — Sun, 14 Feb 2010 12:08:43 +0000

THere’s no error LOL XD I made a mistake.
Actually the error was on (1+1) != 1 on (a+b) != a and (a+b) != b. So are 2a != b, that’s wrong.

By: Kei

Kei — Sun, 14 Feb 2010 12:05:02 +0000

Considering:

1 = 1
1^2 = 1*1
1^2-1^2 = 1*1-1^2
(1+1)(1-1) = 1(1-1) -> This is an Error.
(1+1) = 1 -> Here starts the Wrong Equation.
(1+1) = 1
2(1) = 1
2 = 1

The error is in fact, 1 Cannot be divided by 0.
(1+1) != 1 on (a+b) != a and (a+b) != b. So are 2a != b.

By: hanssi

hanssi — Thu, 04 Feb 2010 20:53:42 +0000

yea, this is what happens when you divide by zero. idiots

By: Tim

Tim — Wed, 27 Jan 2010 05:43:41 +0000

Really guys, everyone saying that a and b equal 1…
2a=a, divide by “a” on both sides and you get 2=1… “a” could be 1,000,000,000 or 27, and you still get 2=1
the error is when you try to divide (a-b) from both sides, because if “a” and “b” are the same (a-b)=0

By: Martin

Martin — Tue, 19 Jan 2010 07:00:38 +0000

Okay people, lets get something straight. You can divide both sides by (a-b) as they both have it on their sides. THERE IS NO DIVISION BY 0!!! If you divide 2y=2 by 2, then y=1. That is basic algebra. Therefore (a+b)(a-b)/(a-b)=a(a-b)/(a-b) becomes 1(a+b)=1a which is (a+b)=a

This is what is called formula manipulation, and (a-b) without definition cannot equal 0 in the first place.

Since a and b were not assigned values, the mistake is assuming they both equal 1.